CCNA 4 v 8.0 Final Exam – Connecting Networks 2023 100%

1 Why is it useful categorize networks by size when discussing network design?

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the core layer.

A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices is know.

The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.*

2 Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.
LCP tests the quality of the link.*
LCP manages compression on the link.*

3 What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

fixed capacity
higher latency*
less flexibility
higher cost

4 Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

it assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.
it can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*
it enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.
it supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.

5

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?

The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.*
The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
The serial interface on Router2 is down.

6 The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?

VPN appliance
VPN concentrator
VPN client software*
VPN gateway

7 A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which command can the administrator use to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?

R2# show ip nat translations
R2# clear ip nat translation
R2# show running-config
R2# show ip nat statistics*

8 Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion control? (Choose three.)

the FECN bit*
the BECN bit*
the C/R bit
the 10-bit DLCI
the Extended Address field
the DE bit*

9 Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used with an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)

The same encryption keys must be manually configured on each device.
Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.*
Encryption and decryption use a different key.*
A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.
AES is an example of an asymmetric encryption protocol.

10 Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

MPLS*
ISDN
Ethernet WAN
Frame Relay

11 Drag and droop

Place the options in the following order: 
PAP Characteristics
uses two-way handshake
single challenge
weak authentication
clear text passwords

CHAP Characteristics
uses three-way handshake
repeated challenges
strong authentication
encrypted passwords

12 Which command can be used to check the information about congestion on a Frame Relay link?

show frame-relay lmi
show interfaces
show frame-relay pvc*
show frame-relay map

13 Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.*
Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch office to headquarters.
Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.*
A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.
End users are not aware that VPNs exists.

14

Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilik PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)

Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.
Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.
Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*
Create and configure the multilink interface.*
Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle
Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*

15 What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)

incorrect interface clock rates
late collisions and jabber
framing errors*
electromagnetic interface
encapsulation errors*

16 What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

CHAP
ADSL
PPPoE*
LTE

17 What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

The host must be connected to wired network.
A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
A web browser must be installed on the host.*
VPN client software must be installed.

18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?

The command to disable split horizon has not been issued.
The passive-interface command has not been issued on interface serial 0/1/0
The directly connected neighbor should have been identified by using static mapping.
The broadcast keyword has not been issued.*

19

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet access to the inside network. After the configurtation is completed, users are unable to access the internet. What is the cause of the problem?

The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.
The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.
The NAT inside source command is referring to the wrong ACL.*
The NAT pool is using an invalid address range.

20 A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?

multihomed
single-homed
dual-multihomed
dual-homed*

21

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.
This host does not have a default gateway configured.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

22 A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

23 Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?

802.5
802.11
802.16*
802.3

24 Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)

accounting*
network monitoring*
error correction
bandwidth regulation
quality of service
billing*

25

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?

NAT overload
dynamic NAT
port forwarding*
PAT

26

Place the options in the following order:

Outside global

- not scored -

Outside local

Inside global

- not scored -

Inside local

27 What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send critical logging events?

syslog server
virtual terminal
console port*
auxiliary port

28 In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?

SNMP agent
NetFlow collector*
syslog server
NMS

29 What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically “burst” over their CIR for short periods of time?

The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to be exceeded.
The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers and there may be times when unused bandwidth is available.*
BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.
Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical interface.

30 Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

GET response
SET request
GET request
Trap*

31 Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?

The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.
The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to that device or vendor.
The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.
The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate properly.*

32 What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure form hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

33 What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?

The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.
The download and upload rates are the same.
The upload rate is faster than the download rate.
The download rate is faster than the upload rate.*

34 The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci
frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci broadcast
no shutdown
ip address ip-address mask*
encapsulation farme-relay
bandwidth kilobits*
frame-relay interface dlci dlci*

35 A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necesary information? (Choose three.)

tracert
telnet
ping*
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
nslookup*
arp -a
ipconfig*

36

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:

R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3

Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.
The snmp-server location command is missing.
There is a problem with the ACL configuration.*
The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.

37 Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast upstream connections?

DSL
Cable
fiber-to-the-home*
WiMax

38

Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?

192.168.0.1
172.16.0.1
209.165.200.225*
10.0.0.1
192.168.0.200

39 What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?

remote access
public
site-to-site*
private

40 Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*
uses RF signal transmission
users are on a shared medium
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)*
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

41

Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose three.)

Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP address.*
The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be sent to the server.

42 Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.*
Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.
Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data transmission.
Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.*
Depending on the configured layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use of time slots.

43 Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

TDR
DTX cable analyzer
NAM*
digital multimeter
portable network analyzer*

44 Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*
when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN
when the network will span multiple buildings
when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

45 Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?

RSA
3DES*
SHA-1
AES

46 What is one advantage to designing networks in bulding block fashion for large companies?

fewer required physical resources
increased network access time
coarse security control
failure isolation*

47 Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)

CMTS
VPN*
CDMA
IPsec*
DOCSIS

48 A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?

The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.
The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigured the DHCP server.
The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting from the point of demarcation.*
The system administartor in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the user PCs.

49

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?

10.1.1.1
209.165.202.134
10.1.1.2
209.165.202.133*

50 How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line?

8
32
24*
16

51 Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, colaborate, and interact with information?

services
access-distribution
data-center*
enterprise edge

52 Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

ADSL
cable*
DSL
WiMax

53 A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can only supply five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the administrator use to accomplish this task?

classless interdomain routing
variable length subnet masks
classful subnetting
port-based Network Address Translation*

54 What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?

It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.
It ensures that the data cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.
It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.*
It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.

55 Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
IPsec*

56 Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

network configuration files
syslog records and messages
debug output and packet captures
the network performance baseline*

57 What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

mature technology*
QoS support using the IP precedence field
integrated encryption
one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*
reasonable cost*
seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN

58 What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?

interface errors
traffic statistics*
memory usage
CPU usage

59 Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

dialup ISDN modem
T1
DSL*
dialup analog modem

60 Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)

packet-switched*
private infrastructure*
public infrastructure
Internet
dedicated

61 What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)

GRE tunnels support multicast traffic.*
GRE creates additional overload for packets that are traveling through the VPN.*
GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified
By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.*
Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for Cisco routers.
GRE provides encapsulation for a single protocol type that is traveling through the VPN.

62 An intercity bus company wants to offer constat Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

cellular*
dedicated
private infrastructure
circuit-switched
public infrastructure*

63 What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

syslog server
terminal line
workstation
console line*

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CCNA 3 R&S: Scaling Networks Final Exam Answers 2023 100%

1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?

ping 10.10.10.1
dir flash:
ping 10.10.10.2*
copy tftp: flash0:

2

Fill in the blank.

The ”  backbone  ”  area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

3
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

the interface IPv6 link-local address*
the 32-bit router ID
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface

4

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.*
If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.
The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.

5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*
The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.*

6

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?

eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100
no shutdown
ipv6 eigrp 100
ipv6 cef
ipv6 unicast-routing*

7
What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)

The APs must use different cluster names.
The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.*
Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.*

8
Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?

the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer
the number of layers of the hierarchical network
the role of the malfunctioning device*
the number of users on the access layer

9
Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable

SW1: passive
SW2: active

SW1: on
SW2: on*

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches

10
In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

provide Power over Ethernet to devices
provide a high-speed network backbone
connect remote networks*
connect users to the network
provide data traffic security*

11
A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)

area 0 authentication message-digest*
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE*
username OSPF password 1C34dE
enable password 1C34dE
area 1 authentication message-digest

12
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
when the router has interfaces in different areas*
when the router has an OSPF priority of 0
when the router has the highest router ID

13
Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)
ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
ability to build a routing table*
ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

14
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.

15

A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.*
Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.

16
What are two differences between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions? (Choose two.)

Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.
The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12 license key is not device specific.*
The IOS 12 version has two trains that occur simultaneously, whereas the IOS 15 version still has two trains, but the versions occur in a single sequential order.
The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release.*

17

Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*
S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.*
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.

18
A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.
Add another access point.*

19
A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:

that all interfaces have correct addressing
that the routing process has been globally configured
that correct router adjacencies have formed
What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?

Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.
Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.
Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.*
Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.

20
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
when a router has less than five active interfaces
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

21
When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

when the EIGRP domain is converged
when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available*
when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network

22
Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network
continually purchase backup equipment for the network*
immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network
implement STP portfast between the switches on the network

23
Fill in the blank. Use the acronym.
Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication technique? ” AES ”

 24

Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.
R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.*
The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.

25

Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63*

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3

26

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.*

27

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

The bundle is fully operational.
The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
The EtherChannel is down.*
The port channel ID is 2.*
The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

28

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.
The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.*
The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.

29
A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

FHRP
VRRP
GLBP*
HSRP

30
Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?

Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.*
Set the AP to mixed mode.
Change the authentication method on the AP.
Switch to an 802.11g AP.

31
A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?

This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.*
The VLAN database is corrupt.
The MAC address table is full.
The inbound interface is set for half duplex.

32
What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards that can implement MIMO?

FHSS
OFDM*
BSS
DSSS

33
Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

Multilink PPP
PAgP
DTP
LACP*

34
A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

32768
4096
65535
61440*

35
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

ad hoc mode*
hotspot
mixed mode
infrastructure mode

36

Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?

10.0.0.0/8*

10.1.0.0/16

10.1.0.0/28

10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28

37
When are EIGRP update packets sent?

only when necessary*
every 30 seconds via broadcast
every 5 seconds via multicast
when learned routes age out

38
Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

The old IOS image file has been deleted.
The FTP server is operational.
There is sufficient space in flash memory.*
The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

39
What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

WPA Personal
WEP
WPA2 Enterprise*
WPA2 Personal

40
A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

show running-config
show interfaces*
show ip protocols
show ip route

41
A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP authentication between the branch office router and the headquarters office router. Which security credential is needed for the authentication process?

a randomly generated key with the crypto key generate rsa command
a common key configured with the key-string command inside a key chain*
the username and password configured on the headquarters office router
the hostname of the headquarters office router and a common password

42

Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the present EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)

Desirable mode is not compatible with on mode.
The trunk mode is not allowed for EtherChannel bundles.
Two auto modes cannot form a bundle.*
The channel group is inconsistent.*
The interface port channel ID should be different in both switches.

43
Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

disabled port
root port*
designated port
non-designated port

44
What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*
Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.
ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*
Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes.

45

Launch PT  Hide and Save PT

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which message was displayed on the web server?

Work done!
Congratulations!
Wonderful work!
You’ve made it!*

46

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be determined by a network administrator from this output? (Choose two.)

The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will be 65 (64+1).
Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the 10.0.0.4 network.
R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.*
The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.

47

RouterA# -> copy flash0:tftp:

Source Filename? -> C1900-universalk9-m.SPA.152-4.M3.bin

Address or name of remote host ->2001:DB8:CAFE:100::9

48
A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
The EtherChannel will remain functional.
The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.*
Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.

49

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
MAC address of the standby router
MAC address of the virtual router*
MAC address of the forwarding router

50

Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
The link to the new area is down.

51
What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

Telnet or SSH access to the device
a connection to an operational network interface on the device
a direct connection to the console or AUX port*
a terminal emulation client*
HTTP access to the device

52
For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)

any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive*
any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process*
any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication
networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol*
the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors
the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers

53
What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*
All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*
Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

54

This type of LSA exists in multi-access & non-broadcast multi-access networks w/DR   =>   TYPE 2 LSA
This type of LSA describes routes to networks outside of the OSPF AS   =>  TYPE 5 LSA
This type of LSA is flooded only within the area which it originated    =>   TYPE 1 LSA
This type of LSA is used by ABR to advertise networks from other areas    =>   TYPE 3 LSA

55
At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?

network
shared-key
open*
passive

56
What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)

broadcast traffic containment
forwarding rate***
failover capability
Power over Ethernet***
speed of convergence
port density***

57

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

58
Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

The packets are sent as unicast.*
The packets are unreliable.*
The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
The packets require confirmation.
The packets are sent in response to hello packets.

59
An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?

Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.
Spanning tree should be disabled for that STP instance until the problem is located.
Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.*
A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.

60
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?

The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
The features in the Security package are available immediately.
The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.*

61
A router has been removed from the network for maintenance. A new Cisco IOS software image has been successfully downloaded to a server and copied into the flash of the router. What should be done before placing the router back into service?

Delete the previous version of the Cisco IOS software from flash.
Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
Back up the new image.
Restart the router and verify that the new image starts successfully.*

62
What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

receiving a broadcast beacon frame*
delivering a broadcast frame
transmitting a probe request*
sending an ARP request
initiating a three-way handshak

63

Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish ad adjacency?

The link-local address must be the same on both routers.

The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.*

R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.

The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.

The router ID must be the same on both routers.

64

feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110
new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64

NEW QUESTIONS

65

Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?

The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.

The CiscoVIlle router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.

The same key number must be used on any EIGRP neighbor routers.

The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.

66 Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

IPBase*

DATA

Unified Communications

Security

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